Dear Friends
I have a hypothetical question which i hope someone might be able to answer.
It relates to a US patent and its CIP.
Lets say I have two US patents, one is a US parent and another a CIP of it.
The US parent is subsequently filed as a PCT application but does not
designate a particular country, say X.
The US CIP is also subsequently filed as a PCT application but it designate
the country X.
My doubt is:
Is it possible for one to designate a country in the 2nd case although it
has not been designated in the first case. If it is yes, then
Doesn't it make the second application obvious in the light of the first one
in the country X since the first one(US parent) has not been filed in that
country?
Thanks
Syed
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Received on Tue Jan 29 2008 - 09:44:16
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